In general, women tend to report higher rates of depression and are more likely to seek treatment. Considering what we have learned thus far about the biological, social, and cultural aspects of depression, what are some reasons for why this phenomenon could occur?
Do women experience higher rates of psychopathology in general or could there be societal factors that could contribute to the development of disorders in women?
Do men simply not experience depression, do they simply not seek treatment, or could depression be manifested with other symptoms (i.e. irritability/aggression)?
Is there peer-reviewed research to support your thoughts? If so, include this in your response along with your reference(s) in APA format.